Dance
Q1: Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states?
- Assam
- Himachal Pradesh
- Punjab
- Tamil Nadu
Answer: Assam
Explanation: Assam. Sattriya dance originated in Sattra, a monastery, as a part of the neo-Vaishnavite movement started by Srimanta Sankardev. Sattriya was given the status of a classical dance in the year 2000 by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. The dance styles of Sattriya are Paurashik Bhangi (male style) andStri Bhangi (female style). Folk dances ofAssam: Bihu, Bagurumba, Deodhani,Bhortal dance.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q2: Q.2. Which of the following statements is true? # Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra. # Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
- Only Statement II is true.
- Both Statement I and Statement II are true
- Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true.
- Only Statement I is true.
Answer: Only Statement I is true.
Explanation: (d) Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu. The Indian classical dances have two basic aspects - Tandava (movement and rhythm) and Lasya (grace, bhava and rasa) and three main components Natya (the dramatic element of the dance); Nritta (the dance movements in their basic form); Nritya (expressional component i.e. mudras or gestures).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q4: When was Bharatanatyam banned by the British colonial government?
Answer: 1910
Explanation: 1910. Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu): It traces its origins back to the Natyashastra, an ancient treatise on theatre written by the mythic priest Bharata. Features : It encompasses Bhav, Rag, Ras and Taal. It consists of six portions: Alarippu (Invocation), Jathiswaram (Nritta part), Shabdam (Short compositions with word), Varnam (a story, that includes both Nritta and Nritya), Padam (Religious prayer, Bhajan, Keerthanam) and Tillana (Origin in the Tarana of Hindustani Music).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q5: Which of the following is a folk dance from the state of Maharashtra?
- Ghoomar
- Bhangra
- Garba
- Dhangari Gaja
Answer: Dhangari Gaja
Explanation: Dhangari Gaja. folk dances: Maharashtra- Lavani, Powada dance, Koli, Waghya Murali. Gujarat Dandiya Raas, Tippani, Bhavai, Garba, Daang. Rajasthan Ghoomar, Bhavai, Kalbelia, Terah Taali. Punjab Bhangra, Giddha, Luddi, Julli.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Q6: What is a one act play of Sattriya called?
- Ekam Nat
- Vishesham Nat
- Anant Nat
- Ankiya Nat
Answer: Ankiya Nat
Explanation: Ankiya Nat: It is a form of Sattriya that involves musical drama or play. It was initially written in Brajavali, an Assamese-Maithili hybrid language. It's also known as 'Bhaona, and it tells stories about Lord Krishna. The Sattriya dance form was introduced in 15th century AD by Mahapurusha Sankaradeva in the state of Assam.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q7: The origin of most of the classical dance forms of India is...........
- Yajur Veda
- Arth Shastra
- Atharva Veda
- Natya Shastra
Answer: Natya Shastra
Explanation: Natya Shastra. Natya Shastra (Sanskrit text on dance art and music): Compiled by Bharat Muni. The text consists of 36 chapters with a cumulative total of 6000 poetic verses describing performance arts.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q8: Bhutia dance is performed in which of the following states?
- Nagaland
- West Bengal
- Odisha
- Sikkim
Answer: Sikkim
Explanation: Sikkim. Other dances: Sikkim - Singhi Chham, Tamang Selo, Sherpa Dance, Ghantu, Gayley-Yang Dance, Sangey Chham Dance and Chu Faat. West Bengal Purulia Chhau, Baul, and Gambhira. Odisha - Gotipua Dance, Dhap, and Paika. Nagaland Modse, Agurshikukula, Aaluyattu, Sadal Kekai, and Changai Dance.
Asked in: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
Q9: Which dance form of Goa is also known as the 'Warrior Dance?
- Lavani
- Bihu
- Ghode Modni
- Rauf
Answer: Ghode Modni
Explanation: Ghode Modni - It is a dance commemorating the Maratha rulers and warriors of the past. Other dances of Goa : Tarangamel, Dekhni, Fugdi, Shigmo, Samayi nrutya, Ranmale, Gonph, Tonnya mell.
Asked in: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q10: Which of the following dances is based on Rasleela themes of Radha and Krishna?
- Mohiniyattam
- Kathak
- Sattriya dance
- Manipuri dance
Answer: Manipuri dance
Explanation: Manipuri dance. Classical dances of India: Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu), Manipuri (Manipur), Kathak (Northern India), Odissi (Odisha), Kathakali (Kerala), Mohiniattam (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Sattriya (Assam).
Asked in: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q11: Sattriya was recognised in ________ as a Classical Dance by Sangeet Natak Akademi.
Answer: 2000
Explanation: 2000. The primary accompanying instruments for this dance genre include the khol (drum), manjira (cymbals), and flute. Songs: Shankaradeva's 'Borgeets.!
Asked in: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Festivals
Q1: 'Gugga Naumi'- the festival celebrated in Haryana and some parts of Punjab, Rajasthan, UP and Himachal Pradesh____ is known as the festival of:
- camel-worshiping
- cow-worshiping
- snake-worshiping
- owl-worshiping
Answer: snake-worshiping
Explanation: Snake-worshiping. Gugga Naumi festival celebrated in the honour of Gugga Pir. It is observed on the 9th day of the Krishna Paksha (waning phase of moon) in Bhadon month (August and September).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q2: Doul Utsav is majorly celebrated in which of the following states?
- Bihar
- Assam
- Chhattisgarh
- Maharashtra
Answer: Assam
Explanation: Assam. Doul Utsav is also called 'holi' or 'rang. Other festivals celebrated in Assam Bihu, Baishagu, Ali-Ai-Ligang, Baikho, Rongker, Rajini Gabra, Harni Gabra, Bohaggiyo Bishu, Ambubachi Mela and Jonbill Mela. Festivals in other states: Bihar Chhath Puja, Bihula, Sama chakeva. Chhattisgarh Pola, Madai Festival, Hareli, Bhoramdeo Mahotsav. Maharashtra - Ganesh Utsav, Gudi Padva.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q3: Bhagoria is a festival associated with which of the following festivals?
- Diwali
- Dusshera
- Holi
- Shiv Ratri
Answer: Holi
Explanation: Holi: A Hindu festival that is celebrated in the spring season. Bhagoria is a tribal festival that is celebrated in Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. Tribal Festivals Hornbill Festival (Nagaland), Tusu Parab (Jharkhand), Bastar Dussehra (Chhattisgarh), Nagoba Jatara (Telangana).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q4: For how many days is the Tirupati Tirumala Brahmotsavam organised?
Answer: 9
Explanation: 9. Tirupati Tirumala Brahmotsavam - It is annually celebrated at the Venkateswara Temple in Tirupati district in Andhra Pradesh. Other Temple Festivals: Thrissur Pooram (Vadakkumnathan Temple, Kerala), Arattu festival (Sree PadmanabhaSwamy Temple, Kerala), Vaikunth Chaturdashi Mela (Kamleshwar Mahadev Temple, Uttarakhand), Buddha Purnima (Mahabodhi Temple, Bodhgaya, Bihar), Ambubachii Mela (Kamakhya Devi Temple, Assam).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Q5: Chethiyagiri Vihara Festival is organised in which state?
- Himachal Pradesh
- Tripura
- Telangana
- Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh. States and their festivals: Himachal Pradesh - Halda, Maghi, Doongri, Ladarcha, Chet, Kullu Dussehra. Tripura Kharchi, Ker and Garia. Telangana - Bathukamma, Bonalu, Medaram Jatara. West Bengal Durga Puja, Poila Baishakh.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Q6: In which month, as per the Hindu calendar, is the birth anniversary of Lord Mahavir Swami celebrated?
- Chaitra
- Kartik
- Magha
- Vaisakha
Answer: Chaitra
Explanation: Chaitra. Hindu calendar and their festival/jayanti: Chaitra - Ugadi, Gudi Padwa, Rama Navami, Hanuman Jayanti. Vaishakha - Parshuram jayanti, Akshaya Tritiya. Jyeshtha - Gayatri Jayanti, Ganga Dussehra. Ashadha Guru Purnima, Jagannath Rthyatra. Shravana Nag Panchami, Raksha Bandhan. Bhadrapada Krishna Janmashtami, Ganesh Chaturthi, Hartalika teej. Ashwin Durga Ashtami. Kartik - Karwa Chauth, Dhanteras, Diwali, Bhaiya Dooj, Chhath Puja.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Q7: What does Gudi signify in Gudi Padwa festival as per Hindu mythology?
- Symbol of harmony
- Symbol of victory
- Symbol of peace
- Symbol of power
Answer: Symbol of victory
Explanation: Symbol of victory. Gudi Padwa: It is marathi new year. Gudi is made by tying a piece of fresh cloth around a bamboo stick of about 5 feet long and Marathis place neem leaves along with sugar candy garland on it. The stick is then placed in a silver or bronze pot. In Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh this festival is also known as Ugadi. It is celebrated in the first month of Chaitra.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q8: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Hornbill Festival? A. The Hornbill Festival is celebrated in the North-eastern state of Nagaland. B.The festival takes place in the month of January. C. The name of the festival is derived from the Indian Hornbill, a bird that is an essential character of the folk tales of the state.
- Both A and B
- Both B and C
- A, B and C
- Both A and C
Answer: Both A and C
Explanation: Both A and C. Hornbill Festival is celebrated from 1 to 10 December in Nagaland. It is also called festivals of festivals.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q9: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Bathukamma Festival? A. This festival is celebrated in the state of Telangana. B. Bathukamma which means 'Mother Goddess come and live' is a colourful floral festival. C. This festival is celebrated for 9 days mostly during September or October (mostly before Dussehra). D. During this festival, men will sing songs and dance around the flower bunches.
- Only A, B and C
- Only B, C and D
- A, B, C and D
- Only A, C and D
Answer: Only A, B and C
Explanation: Only A, B and C.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
Q10: What is the Malayalam New Year called in Kerala?
Answer: Vishu
Explanation: Vishu is celebrated on the first day of the Malayalam month of Medam, which usually falls in the month of April.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
Fairs
Q1: Identify the cultural festival on the basis of given clues: # i) This festival brings together craftsmen like potters, embroiderers, weavers, wood carvers, metal workers, stone smiths and painters from all over India on one platform in Haryana.# ii) This crafts mela is held in February every year and provides a glimpse of the state's cultural heritage and recent achievements.
- Shamlaji Fair
- Kapil Muni Fair
- Surajkund Mela
- Chitra Vichitra Fair
Answer: Surajkund Mela
Explanation: Surajkund Mela (Faridabad). This is one of the most celebrated international Craftsmela and is organised by the Haryana Tourism Department. Shamlaji fair (Gujarat). The Kapil Muni Fair is the largest fair of Bikaner (Rajasthan). The Chitra Vichitra Fair (Gujarat).
Asked in: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q2: Shri Jagannathji Mela is held at_____
- Cuttack
- Jaipur
- Sambalpur
- Alwar
Answer: Alwar
Explanation: Alwar (Rajasthan). The Shri Jagannathji Mela starts with a procession of Lord Jagannath passing through the city. Other Fairs of Rajasthan: Karni Mata Mela (Bikaner); Beneshwar Mela (Dungarpur) and Pushkar Fair (Ajmer).
Asked in: SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q3: The Madhavpur fair is held at______
- Bhatinda
- Porbandar
- Moradabad
- Jaisalmer
Answer: Porbandar
Explanation: Porbandar (Gujarat). The fair is commemorated by a cultural fair held every year, commencing on Ram Navami. The Madhavpur Mela of Gujarat is celebrated in the memory of Lord Krishna and Rukmini.
Asked in: SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q4: The world's largest camel fair held in which of the following cities?
- Bikaner
- Pushkar
- Barmer
- Udaipur
Answer: Pushkar
Explanation: Pushkar (Rajasthan) camel fair held each November at the time of the Kartik Purnima. Fairs/Festivals of Rajasthan: Bikaner camel festival is celebrated in the month of January. Barmer Cattle Fair is held every year in the months of March and April. The Mewar festival Udaipur, is held each year in March-April to welcome spring. The Bundi Festival is celebrated in the month of Kartik (October-November).
Asked in: SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q5: Kumbh Mela and Sangam are famous in which state?
- Meghalaya
- Uttar Pradesh
- Manipur
- Sikkim
Answer: Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh. This fair starts on the day of Makar Sankranti. This fair is held every 12 years, with the location of the observance rotating among four pilgrimage sites on the four sacred rivers: Ganga at Haridwar, Triveni Nashik, and Shipra at Ujjain. Ardha (half) Kumbh Mela is held at only two places, Haridwar and Allahabad, every sixth year and a Maha Kumbh is held after every 144 years. It is the 13th intangible cultural heritage from India to be listed on UNESCO's list.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q6: Simhastha fair is held in Ujjain on the bank of which river?
- Kshipra river
- Son river
- Ganga river
- Gandak river
Answer: Kshipra river
Explanation: Kshipra river. Ujjain Simhastha is a Hindu religious mela held every 12 years in the Ujjain city of Madhya Pradesh.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q7: With reference to Sonepur Cattle fair, consider the following statements and select the correct option. a) It is associated with the Hariharnath temple. b) It begins on Purnima (full moon night) and Kartik month. c) It is celebrated in the Madhya Pradesh state.
- Both a and b
- Both a and c
- Both b and c
- a, b, c
Answer: Both a and b
Explanation: Both a and b. Sonepur Cattle Fair is one of Asia's largest cattle fairs, organized at the confluence of two rivers, the Ganga and Gandak in Bihar. Nagaji Fair is celebrated in the tribal area of Madhya Pradesh.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q8: Sheorinarayan fair is held in which of the following states?
- West Bengal
- Chhattisgarh
- Jharkhand
- Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Chhattisgarh
Explanation: Chhattisgarh. The fair is held every year in the month of February during the Magh Purnima. The Sherorinarayan Temple which is devoted to Lord Rama is the main venue of this Fair.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q9: "Ambubachi Mela" is held in which place?
Answer: Guwahati
Explanation: Guwahati (Assam). Ambubachi Mela also known as Ameti or Tantric fertility festival. It is the celebration of the yearly menstruation (phallus worship worship of sexual organ) course of goddess Kamakhya. Kamakhya temple is located on Nilachal Sangam at Prayagraj, the Godavari at Hills on the banks of Brahmaputra river. It is built on Nilachala Style of Architecture.
Asked in: SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Q10: A ritual bath named "Shahi Snan is a major event of which of the following festival?
Answer: Kumbh Mela
Explanation: Kumbh Mela.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Songs
Q1: Who was the singer of the famous song 'Mere Desh Ki Dharti Sona Ugle' from the film 'Upkar (1967)?
- KJ Yesudas
- Suresh Wadkar
- Manna Dey
- Mahendra Kapoor
Answer: Mahendra Kapoor
Explanation: Mahendra Kapoor (Indian playback singer) received Padma Shri (1972). Famous Patriotic songs: "Hai preet jahan ki reet sada, main geet wahan ke gata hoon" (Mahendra Kapoor), "Des rangila" (Mahalakshmi lyer), "Maa tujhe salam" (AR Rahman), "Kar chale hum fida jaan-o-tan saathiyon" (Mohammed Rafi), "Aye mere pyare watan, aye mere bichchde chaman, tujhpe dil qurban" (Manna Dey).
Asked in: SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q2: Identify the Indian singer who sang the song 'Ae mere watan ke logon jara akhon mein bharlo paani... before the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Lata Mangeshkar
- Mohammad Rafi
- Mukesh
- Asha Bhosle
Answer: Lata Mangeshkar
Explanation: Lata Mangeshkar. Patriotic song and singers: Vande Mataram (Lata Mangeshkar), Kar Chale Hum Fida (Mohammad Rafi), Watan Ki Mitti Haath Mein Lekar (Mukesh), De Di Hame Azadi (Asha Bhosle).
Asked in: SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q3: Rabindra Sangeet is associated with:
- Rabi
- Ravindra Jain
- Rabindranath Tagore
- Ravi Shankar
Answer: Rabindranath Tagore
Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore. Rabindra Sangeet is a set of folk songs sung during festivals and rituals in West Bengal. Folk songs in West Bengal: Bhatiali, baul.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q4: Who is credited with creating the popular Raga Miya Ki Malhar?
- Tansen
- Amir Khusrau
- Meera Bai
- Zakir Hussain
Answer: Tansen
Explanation: Tansen. Compositions Darbari Kanhra (night raga), Mian Ki Todi (morning raga), Mian ki Sarang (mid-day raga). Miya ki Malhar (seasonal raga).
Asked in: SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q5: Which among the following songs was composed by famous Indian musician Rahul Dev Burman?
- Yeh Dosti Hum Nahi Todenge
- Kesariya
- Kisi Ki Muskurahaton Pe Ho Nisar
- Ae Dil Hai Mushkil
Answer: Yeh Dosti Hum Nahi Todenge
Explanation: Yeh Dosti Hum Nahi Todenge (Sholay 1975): Lyricist Anand Bakshi. Singer Manna Dey, Kishore Kumar. Famous Patriotic Songs: Aye Mere Watan Ke Logo (Lata Mangeshkar), Saare Jahan Se Accha (Muhammad Iqbal), Mere desh ki dharti (Mahendra Kapoor), Yeh Jo Des Hai Tera (A.R. Rahman), Sandese Aate Hai (Roop Kumar Rathod, Sonu Nigam).
Asked in: SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning)
Q6: Carnatic music is confined to
- Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Rajasthan
- Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Haryana
- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Haryana
- Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Answer: Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Explanation: Carnatic Music : It is accompanied by instruments such as the flute, veena, nadaswaram, mridangam and ghatam. Purandaradasa is considered to be the father of Carnatic music.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Q7: The most distinctive type of folk songs of Assam are
- Qawwali songs
- Bihu songs
- Teej songs
- Bhuta songs
Answer: Bihu songs
Explanation: Bihu songs. It celebrates the life-sustaining character of the Brahmaputra. Bhuta song of Kerala is based on superstitions to send away evil ghosts and spirits.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Q8: Qawwali was brought in India from.
- Turkey
- Saudi Arabia
- Mongolia
- Persia
Answer: Persia
Explanation: Persia. Qawwali is religious Sufi music that celebrates devotion and one's relationship with God. Amir Khusrau is the popularly acknowledged father of Qawwali. Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan recognised as "Shahenshah-e-Qawwali".
Asked in: SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q9: Which of the following pairs of Thumri Singing-characteristics is correct? I. Poorab - fairly slow and staid II. Punjab - more mercurial
- Only
- Only II
- Both I and II
- Neither I nor II
Answer: Both (1) and (II)
Explanation: Both (1) and (II). The thumri is another North Indian vocal form and is based on the romantic-devotional literature inspired by the bhakti movement. The text is usually derived from the Radha-Krishna theme and is of primary importance.
Asked in: SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
Q10: The famous song 'Aye Mere Watan Ke Logo' was originally sung by
- Shreya Ghoshal
- Lata Mangeshkar
- Arijit Singh
- Asha Bhosle
Answer: Lata Mangeshkar
Explanation: Lata Mangeshkar. Patriotic songs Mere Desh ki Dharti (Mahendra Kapoor), Teri Mitti (B.Praak), Chhodo Kal Ki Baatein (Mukesh).
Asked in: SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Evening)
Sports
Q1: Limba Ram is associated with which sport?
- Athletics
- Badminton
- Archery
- Polo
Answer: Archery
Explanation: Archery. Other Archery Players - Atanu Das, Deepika Kumari, Tarundeep Rai, Neeraj Chauhan, Dola Banerjee.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q2: The Indian Olympic Association is affiliated to
- International Olympic Council
- International Olympic Association
- International Olympic Federation
- International Olympic Committee
Answer: International Olympic Committee
Explanation: International Olympic Committee. Headquarters - Lausanne (Switzerland). Established - 23 June 1894.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q3: In which year did India organise the Asian Games for the second time?
Answer: 1982
Explanation: 1982. Asian Games:- The Asian Games are held every four years. It was regulated by the Asian Games Federation (AGF) from 1951 to 1978 Games. Since the 1982 Games, they have been organised by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA). The first edition was hosted in New Delhi (1951). The motto - "Play the game in the spirit of the game". Second edition Manila, Philippines (1954).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q4: How many circles does a target have in archery?
Answer: 10
Explanation: 10. Archery: It is the sport, practice, or skill of using a bow to shoot arrows. Terminology: Bodkin point, Bow, Arm guard, Bow Hand, Full Draw, Release, Crossbow, Overdraw.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q5: Due to World War I and II the Olympic Games were NOT held in which years?
- 1916, 1936, 1940
- 1916, 1940, 1944
- 1924, 1940, 1944
- 1920, 1944, 1948
Answer: 1916, 1940, 1944
Explanation: 1916, 1940, 1944. The first modern Olympic Games were held in Athens (Greece) in 1896. Summer Olympics and their venues: 2024 Paris (France), 2028 Los Angeles (U.S.A). Winter Olympics and their venues: 2026- Milan-Cortina d'Ampezzo (Italy). Baron Pierre de Coubertin founded the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 1894.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q6: 'Let Ball', 'Stroke Ball' and 'No Let' are part of which game?
Answer: Squash
Explanation: Squash. Terminologies: Foot fault, Not up, Out, Fault, Down, Hand Out, Rally, Striker, Half Court Line, Outline, Quarter Court, Board, Hand.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q7: In table tennis, the period during which a ball is in play is called
Answer: rally
Explanation: Rally starts when the server serves the ball and ends when the point is awarded to one of the players. Let- Service ball hitting the net or a distraction that causes the point played over. Point A unit of scoring in table tennis. Dead - A ball without any spin.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q8: Cristiano Ronaldo belongs to which country?
- Brazil
- Germany
- Portugal
- Argentina
Answer: Portugal
Explanation: Portugal. Other famous footballers (related country) Lionel Messi (Argentina), Kylian Mbappe (French), Andres Iniesta (Spain), Zlatan Ibrahimovic (Sweden), Radamel Falcao (Colombia), Robin van Persie (Netherlands), Andrea Pirlo (Italy), Sadio Mane (Senegalese).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Q9: The rule that 'it can move only one square in any direction' applies to whom in a game of chess?
- The Rook
- The Bishop
- The King
- The Queen
Answer: The King
Explanation: The King. Chess - A board game for two players, called White and Black. It is played on a chessboard with 64 squares arranged in an 8 x 8 grid. Different movement rule: Rook - Moves any number of squares horizontally or vertically. Queen Moves any number of unoccupied squares in any direction- horizontally, vertically or diagonally.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Q10: In which year was the Men's cricket world cup started?
Answer: 1975
Explanation: 1975. World Cup - The first World Cup was organised in England in 1975. It was won by the West Indies (final was played between Australia and West Indies). India won the world cup two times First win came in 1983 (Defeated West Indies in the final) and the second win came in 2011 (Defeated Sri Lanka).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Organisation
Q1: What percentage of jobs in India are at risk of automation, as per World Bank data, 2016?
Answer: 69%
Explanation: 69%. In China it is 77% and in Ethiopia, the percentage of jobs threatened by automation is 85%. The World Bank is one of the Bretton wood institutions, established in 1944. First President - Eugene Meyer. Reports: World Development Report, Global Economic Prospects, Poverty and Shared Prosperity, Global Financial Development Report.
Asked in: SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
Q2: To mark the celebration of Gandhi Jayanti, the celebrates it as International Day of Non-Violence.
- United Nations
- BRICS Nations
- South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
- Group of 20
Answer: United Nations
Explanation: United Nations passed a resolution in 2007 to observe Gandhi Jayanti (October 2) as the International Day of Non-Violence every year. BRICS Nations: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Established 2009. The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC): Headquarters Kathmandu (Nepal). Established 8 December, 1985. G-20: Established 1999.
Asked in: SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q3: Indian Industrialists reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities and formed an organization in 1927. What was it called?
- Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress
- Organization of Industries of India
- Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries
- Confederation of Indian Industries
Answer: Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries
Explanation: FICCI: It is the largest and oldest apex business organisation in India. Founded: 1927, Headquarters: New Delhi. IICC: Founded 1920, Headquarters - New Delhi. CII: Founded 1895, Headquarters - New Delhi. &
Asked in: SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q4: Which of the following ministries of the Government of India has under it the Council of Scientific Industrial Research (CSIR)?
- Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- Ministry of Earth Sciences
- Ministry of Science and Technology
- Ministry of Education
Answer: Ministry of Science and Technology
Explanation: Ministry of Science and Technology. Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR): The largest research and development (R&D) organization in India. Established - 1942, Headquarters New Delhi. Founder(s) Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliar, Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar. President: Prime Minister of India. Motto "CSIR-The Innovation Engine of India". Parent institution Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q5: Which of the following countries is NOT a member of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)?
- Pakistan
- Myanmar
- Afghanistan
- Bhutan
Answer: Myanmar
Explanation: Myanmar. SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia. Member states: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Founded: 8 December 1985, Dhaka (Bangladesh). Objectives To promote economic cooperation, social progress, and cultural development among its member states.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q6: Indian council of Historical Research, an autonomous organization, was set up by the Government of India in
Answer: 1972
Explanation: 1972. Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)It is a captive body of the Ministry of Education, Government of India established by an administrative order. Aim To promote and give directions to historical research and to encourage and foster objective and scientific writing of history. Headquarters New Delhi. Regional centers - Pune (Maharashtra), Bengaluru (Karnataka), and Guwahati (Assam). Founded: 27 March 1972. First chairman - Ram Sharan Sharma.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q7: Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO), which is under the Ministry of Defence Government of India, was formed in the year _
Answer: 1958
Explanation: 1958. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO): The Research and Development wing of the military's research and development, headquartered in Delhi. Achievements of DRDO: Agni and Prithvi series of missiles, Light combat aircraft (Tejas), Multi-barrel rocket launcher (Pinaka) Mk-I, Pilotless Target Aircraft 'Lakshya-l.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q8: Indian Academy of Sciences, founded in 1934 by CV Raman, is situated in
- Mumbai
- Bangalore
- Hyderabad
- New Delhi
Answer: Bangalore
Explanation: Bangalore. The Indian Academy of Sciences Registered as a society in 1934 with the aim of promoting the progress and upholding the cause of science, in both pure and applied branches. C.V. Raman, won the Nobel Prize in Physics (1930) for his work on the scattering of light. India celebrates National Science Day on 28 February of every year to commemorate the discovery of the "Raman effect".
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q9: The Indian National Science Academy is situated in _
- New Delhi
- Hyderabad
- Allahabad
- Bangaluru
Answer: New Delhi
Explanation: New Delhi. The Indian National Science Academy (formerly known as The National Institute of Sciences of India). Established - January 1935 at Calcutta. Headquarters Delhi. Aim: Promotion of scientific knowledge. Institutions and Place The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) New Delhi; Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Bengaluru; Indian Institute of Sciences (IISC) Bengaluru; Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) New Delhi; Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) - Trombay, Mumbai.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q10: Which of the following institution has been accredited as National Implementing Entity for Adaptation Fund under United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in India?
Answer: NABARD
Explanation: NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development): A Statutory body. Established - July 12, 1982. Role - Development of agriculture, small-scale industries and other allied economic activities in rural areas. Other Institutions, Establishment Year and Headquarters Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), 1929 - New Delhi. The National Institute for Rural Development (NIRD), 1977 - Hyderabad. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) April 1, 1935 - Mumbai.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift)
Computer
Q1: Which among the following is a part of the URL (Uniform Resource Locator)?
- Server
- Error code
- Port number
- Multiplexer
Answer: Port Number
Explanation: Port Number. Parts of URL: scheme, sub- domain, domain, top level domain, port number, path, query, parameters, fragment. A server is a computer or system that provides resources, data, services, or programs to other computers, known as clients, over a network. A multiplexer is a device that selects one of several input signals and forwards it to a single output.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q2: What is the purpose of the 'Alignment' options in Microsoft Word?
- To insert images and graphics
- To adjust the spacing between lines of text.
- To change the font colour of the text.
- To control the horizontal or vertical placement of text within margins.
Answer: To control the horizontal or vertical placement of text within margins.
Explanation: Alignment is how text flows in relation to the rest of the page (or column, table cell, text box, etc.). There are four main alignments: left (Ctrl + L), right (Ctrl + R), center (Ctrl + E), and justify (Ctrl + J).
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q3: What is the role of ROM (Read-Only Memory) in a computer system?
- Managing network connection.
- Storing user-generated files and documents.
- Storing the computer's firmware and startup instructions.
- Providing temporary storage for running applications.
Answer: Storing the computer's firmware and startup instructions.
Explanation: ROM (read only memory), is a memory device or storage medium that stores information permanently. Types: Mask ROM Permanently programmed during the manufacturing process. Cannot be altered by the user. Programmable ROM (PROM) Can be programmed once using special equipment and a one-time programming voltage. Cannot be erased or reprogrammed. Erasable and Programmable ROM (EPROM): Can be erased using ultraviolet light and then reprogrammed multiple times. Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM): Can be erased and reprogrammed electrically within the device, offering greater flexibility than EPROM.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q4: What is a 'DDoS attack' in the context of network security?
- An attack that aims to exploit vulnerabilities in software
- An attack that floods a network with excessive traffic to overwhelm and disrupt its operation.
- A type of malware that replicates itself and spreads through a network.
- A social engineering attack that targets specific individuals.
Answer: An attack that floods a network with excessive traffic to overwhelm and disrupt its operation.
Explanation: Some of the severe emerging threats to network security are DDOS (distributed denial-of-service) attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, phishing attacks, inadequate network protocols, and ransomware attacks.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q5: What is 'Phishing' in the context of network security?
- A type of computer worm that spreads through email attachments.
- An attack that floods a network with excessive traffic to disrupt its operation.
- A social engineering attack that tricks users into revealing sensitive information.
- A type of malware that spreads through infected USB drives.
Answer: A social engineering attack that tricks users into revealing sensitive information.
Explanation: Four types of phishing: Spear Phishing, Whaling, Vishing, Email Phishing. More types of cyber attacks: Malware (short for "malicious software") is a file or code, typically delivered over a network, that infects, explores, steals or conducts virtually any behavior an attacker wants. Spoofing is the act of disguising a communication from an unknown source as being from a known, trusted source.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q6: What is a workbook in Excel?
- A collection of cells with related data
- A set of predefined formatting styles
- A chart that visualises data
- A file containing multiple worksheets
Answer: A file containing multiple worksheets
Explanation: Terminologies in MS Excel: Cell Reference - The set of coordinates that a cell occupies on a worksheet. A Worksheet which is also called a spreadsheet is a combination of cells. Ribbon is the area where tabs and icons are arranged in rows in the upper portion of the worksheet. AutoFill is a feature in Excel that allows users to quickly fill in a series of cells with a pattern or data. Flash Fill allows users to quickly fill in a column of data based on another column of data.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q7: What is the keyboard shortcut to 'Paste' copied content from the clipboard in most Windows applications?
- Ctrl + С
- Ctrl + Z
- Ctrl + х
- Ctrl + V
Answer: Ctrl + V
Explanation: Ctrl + V. Ctrl + C- It is used to copy selected text or images to clipboard. Ctrl + Z - It is used to undo an action. Ctrl +X - It is used to cut selected text or files from a document or folder.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q8: What is the main purpose of the 'BCC' field in email composition?
- To include multiple main recipients in a single field.
- To indicate the importance of the email.
- To send copies of the email without revealing the other recipients' addresses.
- To attach files to the email.
Answer: To send copies of the email without revealing the other recipients' addresses.
Explanation: Email terminologies: An attachment is any type of file sent along with an email message. Base64 is a method of encoding and decoding. The "To" line is for the primary recipient. CC (carbon copy), allowing someone apart from the primary recipient to receive a copy of the email.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q9: What protocol is commonly used for sending and receiving emails?
Answer: SSH
Explanation: The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol is a method for securely sending commands to a computer over an unsecured network. FTP is a standard internet protocol provided by TCP/IP used for transmitting the files from one host to another. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is an application-level protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q10: Which of the following is an example of an output device?
- Printer
- Microphone
- Scanner
- Mouse
Answer: Printer
Explanation: Printer. Examples of Output devices Monitor, Headphones, Computer Speakers, Projector, GPS, Sound Card, Video Card. Input Devices: Keyboard, Mouse, Light Pen, Optical /magnetic Scanner, Touch Screen, Microphone for voice as input, Track Ball, Joystick.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Awards
Q1: Who among the following wrote the novel 'Kitne Pakistan', which won the Sahitya Akademi Award?
- Rajeshwar Singh
- Kamleshwar
- Shrilal Shukla
- Amrita Pritam
Answer: Kamleshwar
Explanation: Kamleshwar. He was awarded the 2003 Sahitya Akademi Award. Other novels: "Pati Patni Aur Woh",, "Samagra Upanyas".
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Q2: Dronacharya Award was started in
Answer: 1985
Explanation: 1985. Dronacharya Award: The award comprises a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial dress, and a money prize of Rs 15 lakh (lifetime) and 10 Lakh (regular). The first recipients of the award were Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat (Wrestling), Om Prakash Bhardwaj (Boxing), and O. M. Nambiar (Athletics), who were honored in 1985.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q3: Arjuna Award was introduced in
Answer: 1961
Explanation: 1961. Arjuna Award: Category Sports honour in India, Sponsored by Government of India. Other awards and their inception: Bharat Ratna (1954), Padma Vibhushan (1954), Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award (1991-1992), Dhyan Chand Award (2002), Dronacharya Award (1985), Noble prize (1901), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1952).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
Q4: Devendra Jhajharia won which medal/place in World Para Athletics Grand Prix?
Answer: Silver
Explanation: Silver. Devendra Jhajharia: Indian Paralympic javelin thrower. He was the first Indian to win two gold medals at Paralympics. World Para Athletics Grand Prix, on 17 September 2022 - Held in Morocco. The first IPC Athletics World Championships were held in Berlin, Germany in 1994.
Asked in: SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q5: The former captain of the Indian women's hockey team _ was conferred with the BBC Lifetime Achievement Award for her contribution to Indian sports and inspiring generations of players.
- Rani Rampal
- Vandana Katariya
- Savita Punia
- Pritam Siwach
Answer: Pritam Siwach
Explanation: Pritam Siwach. Awards: Arjuna Award (1998), DronaCharya Awards (2021). Rani Rampal (Hockey Player) - Padma Shri (2020), Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (2020), Vandana Kataria (Hockey player) - Padma Shri (2022), Arjun Award (2021), Savita Punia (Hockey Player) Arjun Award (2018).
Asked in: SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q6: Lata Mangeshkar was awarded India's highest civilian honor 'Bharat Ratna' in the year
Answer: 2001
Explanation: 2001. Lata Mangeshkar also known as the 'Nightingale of Bollywood' and Queen of Melody. Awards Padma Bhushan (1969), Padma Vibhushan (1999), Maharashtra Bhushan (1997). Lata Mangeshkar recorded her first song at age 13 for Kiti Hasaal (Marathi Movie)
Asked in: SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q7: Gurucharan Singh received the Padma Shri from the Government of India in 2023 for his contributions to the sport of
- football
- kabaddi
- basketball
- cricket
Answer: cricket
Explanation: Cricket. Gurucharan Singh is a cricket coach, the second cricket coach to be awarded the Dronacharya Award (1987) after Desh Prem Azad (awarded in 1986).
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q8: When was Kapil Dev awarded with Padma Shri Award?
Answer: 1982
Explanation: 1982. Kapil Dev (The Haryana Hurricane): He was the captain of the Indian cricket team when India lifted a World Cup trophy (1983). Awards - Padma Bhushan (1991), Arjuna Award for Cricket (1979), C. K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award (2013).
Asked in: SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q9: Who received the Nobel Prize in 1901 for 'recognition of the extraordinary services rendered by the discovery of the laws of chemical dynamics and osmotic pressure in solutions'?
- Hermann Emil Fischer
- Jacobus Henricus van 't Hoff
- Svante August Arrhenius
- Henri Moissan
Answer: Jacobus Henricus van 't Hoff
Explanation: Jacobus Henricus van't Hoff. Nobel Prize 1902 - Hermann Emil Fischer "in recognition of the extraordinary services he has rendered by his work on sugar and purine synthesis". 1903- Svante August Arrhenius "in recognition of the extraordinary services he has rendered to the advancement of chemistry by his electrolytic theory of dissociation". 1906 Henri Moissan "in recognition of the great services rendered by him in his investigation and isolation of the element fluorine, and for the adoption in the service of science of the electric furnace called after him".
Asked in: SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
Q10: When did Linus Carl Pauling receive the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for 'his research into the nature of the chemical bond and its applications to the elucidation of the structure of complex substances'?
Answer: 1954
Explanation: 1954. Linus Carl Pauling was also awarded with the Nobel Peace Prize (1962). Some Scientists who won Nobel Prize in Chemistry: Otto Paul Hermann Diels and Kurt Alder (1950) - "for their discovery and development of the diene synthesis". Sir Cyril Norman Hinshelwood and Nikolay Semenov (1956) "for their research into the mechanism of chemical reactions". Frederick Sanger (1958)- "for his work on the structure of proteins, especially that of insulin".
Asked in: SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Founder
Q1: Who among the following was the founding member of Sri Sai Nataraja Academy of Kuchipudi that offers training and higher studies in Kuchipudi?
- P Ramadevi
- Kaushalya Reddy
- Yamini Krishnamurthy
- Aparna Satheesan
Answer: P Ramadevi
Explanation: P Ramadevi. Natya Tarangini Institute of Kuchipudi Dance: Founded by Raja and Radha Reddy in New Delhi (1976).
Asked in: SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q2: Who among the following was the founder of the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science?
- Ashutosh Mukhopadhyay
- Mahendra Lal Sircar
- Prafulla Chandra Roy
- Jagadish Chandra Bose
Answer: Mahendra Lal Sircar
Explanation: Mahendra Lal Sircar. Ashutosh Mukhopadhyay founded the Calcutta Mathematical Society in 1908. Prafulla Chandra Roy is known as the father of Indian Chemistry. A crescograph is a device for measuring the growth in plants was invented by Jagadish Chandra Bose.
Asked in: SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening)
Q3: Which of the following firms is run by billionaire Warren Buffet?
- American Express Company
- Berkshire Hathaway
- Bank of America
- JP Morgan Chase
Answer: Berkshire Hathaway
Explanation: Berkshire Hathaway.
Asked in: SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Evening)
Q4: Who among the following made the first compound microscope?
- William Gilbert
- Zacharias Jansen
- John Harrington
- Galileo Galilei
Answer: Zacharias Jansen
Explanation: Zacharias Jansen. A compound microscope has multiple lenses: The objective lens is compounded (multiplied) by the eyepiece lens to obtain a high magnification.
Asked in: SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon)
Q5: Who among the following Sikh Gurus founded the Tarn Taran Sahib?
- Guru Ram Das
- Guru Arjan Dev
- Guru Nanak Dev
- Guru Gobind Singh
Answer: Guru Arjan Dev
Explanation: Guru Arjan Dev. He was the fifth Sikh Guru and laid the foundation of Tarn Taran Sahib in 1596.
Asked in: SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening)
Q6: Who among the following invented the aeroplane?
- Auguste and Louis Lumière
- Alexander Graham Bell
- Orville and Wilbur Wright
- Louis Pasteur and Alexander Fleming
Answer: Orville and Wilbur Wright
Explanation: Orville and Wilbur Wright (Wright brothers). Auguste and Louis Lumiere invented cinematograph and autochrome (a photography process). The first practical telephone and Graphophone was invented by Alexander Graham Bell.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 15/10/2020 (Afternoon)
Q7: Which of the following was invented by Walter Hunt?
- Ship
- Safety pin
- Scooter
- Safety lamp
Answer: Safety pin
Explanation: Safety pin. Walter Hunt also invented a sewing machine in 1833. Safety Lamp invented in 1815 by Sir Humphry Davy.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 21/10/2020 (Afternoon)
Q8: Who among the following founded the Bombay Stock Exchange?
- Ashishkumar Chauhan
- Premchand Roychand
- Vikramjit Sen
- Roychand Deepchand
Answer: Premchand Roychand
Explanation: Premchand Roychand.
Asked in: SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening)
Entertainment
Q1: Radio broadcasting started in India in by the Radio Club of Bombay (Mumbai).
Answer: 1923
Explanation: Broadcasting 1923. Company The Indian (IBC) was formed as a private company to operate radio stations in India in 1927. The Indian State Broadcasting Service was established by the government of India in 1930. The service was renamed All India Radio (AIR) in 1936.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q2: Which of the following novels is written by RK Narayan and also adapted into a Hindi film by the same name?
- Hello
- The Guide
- Devdas
- 3 Idiots
Answer: The Guide
Explanation: The Guide (1965). Movies based on R.K Narayan's Novels: Banker Margayya (1983), Mr Sampath (1972).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q3: Who was the music director of the famous film 'Sholay' released in 1975?
- Madan Mohan
- Nadeem-Shravan
- Jatin - Lalit
- RD Burman
Answer: RD Burman
Explanation: RD Burman. Sholay Movie: Director (Ramesh Sippy), Producer (GP Sippy), Writer (Salim-Javed).
Asked in: SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q4: Who among the following singers had a Guinness World Record for recording 28 songs in a single day? (As of December 2022.)
- Sonu Nigam
- Kumar Sanu
- Udit Narayan
- Arijit Singh
Answer: Kumar Sanu
Explanation: Kumar Sanu: Awards and Honours Maharashtra Ratna Awards (2014), Padma Shri (2009). Udit Narayan (Playback singer): Awards Padma Shri (2009), Рadma Bhushan (2016). Sonu Nigam: Awards Padma Shri (2022). Arijit Singh - Singer and music composer.
Asked in: SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q5: The Telugu movie RRR created history by winning a Golden Globe for the Natu Natu song composed by whom among the following personalities?
- Shankar - Ehsaan - Loy
- Mervin Solomon
- MM Keeravani
- AR Rahman
Answer: MM Keeravani
Explanation: MM Keeravani. RRR film: Director S. S. Rajamouli. Academy Awards (Oscars Awards) were first awarded in 1929.
Asked in: SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Q6: Azhar (2016), a sports-related movie, is based on which of the following sports?
- Cricket
- Boxing
- Mixed Martial arts
- Hockey
Answer: Cricket
Explanation: Cricket. Azhar (2016) The story inspired by Mohammad Azharuddin (Former national cricket team captain). Movies based on Indian Cricketers: Sachin Tendulkar: A Billion Dreams (2017)- Based on Former Indian Cricketer Sachin Tendulkar. 83 (2021) - Based on the India national cricket teain which won the 1983 led by Kapil Dev, Cricket World Cup. M S Dhoni: The Untold Story (2016) Mahendra Singh Dhoni (Former captain of the Indian national cricket team).
Asked in: SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening)
Q7: Which of the following is NOT an example of Mass Media?
- Radio
- Door to door campaign
- Television
- Newspapers
Answer: Door to door campaign
Explanation: Door to door campaign. Mass Media: A technology that is intended to reach a mass audience. It is the primary means of communication used to reach the general public.
Asked in: SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning)
Q8: Who among the following composers won the Grammy in 2015 for his album 'Winds of Samsara'a collaboration with South African flautist Wouter Kellerman?
- Mano Murthy
- Raghu Dixit
- Subhashish Ghosh
- Ricky Kej
Answer: Ricky Kej
Explanation: Ricky Kej. He won his second Grammy award in 2022 for his album 'Divine Tides' in category of Best New age album.
Asked in: SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Q9: Who among the following was the winner of the National Film Award in 2002 for his choreography in the Hindi movie 'Lagaan'?
- Ahmed Khan
- Dinesh Kumar
- Raju Khan
- Shiamak Davar
Answer: Raju Khan
Explanation: Raju Khan. Lagaan: {Director: Ashutosh Gowariker, Actor: Aamir Khan, music director: A. R. Rahman}. Terence Lewis won the 2002 American Choreography Award for his work in this movie.
Asked in: SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Q10: Who among the following became the first Asian to win the award for best sound for the documentary 'India's Daughter' at the coveted Motion Picture Sound Editors' 63rd annual Golden Reel Awards?
- Justin Jose
- P.M.Satheesh
- Resul Pookutty
- Boby John
Answer: Resul Pookutty
Explanation: Resul Pookutty (Indian film sound designer, sound editor, and audio mixer). Awards: Golden Reel Award (2016), Padma Shri (2010), National Film Award for Best Audiography (2010), Asianet Film Awards (2009).
Asked in: SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Schemes
Q1: The Swadesh Darshan Scheme (SDS) which was launched in 2014-15 by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, has been revamped as in 2023.
- Swadesh Darshan 3.0
- Swadesh Darshan 4.0
- Swadesh Darshan 2.0
- Swadesh Darshan 1.0
Answer: Swadesh Darshan 2.0
Explanation: Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0). It seeks to attain "Aatmanirbhar Bharat" with the mantra of 'vocal for local'.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q2: Which age group of the population are covered under the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) scheme of the Government of India?
- 25 to 60 years
- 15 to 35 years
- 30 to 60 years
- 14 to 40 years
Answer: 15 to 35 years
Explanation: 15 to 35 years. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalyaya Yojana (Launch 2014): It is a demand-driven placement linked skill training initiative working under the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM). Scheme was announced by the Ministry of Rural Development on Antyodaya Divas.
Asked in: SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q3: What is the name of the scheme launched by the Himachal Pradesh government for dairy farmers?
- Dugdh Dhan
- Pashu Poshan
- Doodh aur Dhan
- Sanjeevani
Answer: Sanjeevani
Explanation: Sanjeevani: This project uses telemedicine and technology to provide convenient and high-quality livestock care services to farmers.
Asked in: SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q4: In which year was the Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) scheme launched by the Government of India?
Answer: 1979
Explanation: 1979. Objectives of TRYSEM: To provide rural youth (18-35 years) from families below the poverty line with training and technical skills to enable them to take up self-employment in agriculture, industry, services and business activities.
Asked in: SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q5: Under the Chief Minister Learn and Earn Scheme of Madhya Pradesh, the government will NOT provide which of the following?
- Financial assistance
- Training
- Laptops
- Employable skills
Answer: Laptops
Explanation: Laptops. Learn and Earn scheme: The important aspect of this learn-and-earn scheme is that along with learning skills, the youth will also be given an allowance of Rs 8,000 to 10,000 a month.
Asked in: SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q6: Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Power Sector's Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme? 1) The Prime Minister launched the Ministry of Power's flagship Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme in 2022. 2) This scheme is aimed at improving the operational efficiencies and financial sustainability of distribution companies. 3) From FY 2022-23 to FY 2027-28, the scheme aims to provide financial assistance to DISCOMs 4) This scheme proposes to provide 25 crore Smart Prepaid meters to consumers all over the country.
- 1, 3 and 4
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1, 2 and 4
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: 1, 2 and 4. The Prime Minister launched the Ministry of Power's flagship Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme with an outlay of Rs.3,03,758 crore over a period of five years from FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26.
Asked in: SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q7: Under which scheme of Airport Authority of India did the Jammu and Kashmir Lieutenant Governor inaugurate UMEED Market Place at Srinagar international airport for supporting local art and artisans of Self Help Groups of J&K Rural Livelihood Mission?
- AVSAR Scheme
- AAKAR Scheme
- AKASH Scheme
- ASAR Scheme
Answer: AVSAR Scheme
Explanation: AVSAR Scheme - Airport as Venue for Skilled Artisans Of The Region. launched in 2022.
Asked in: SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q8: What is the name of the scheme launched by the Uttar Pradesh government to boost milk production?
- Nand Baba Milk Mission
- Gokul Milk Mission
- Krishna Balram Milk Mission
- Gua Ras Mission
Answer: Nand Baba Milk Mission
Explanation: Nand Baba Milk Mission. Scheme to increase milk production: Rashtriya Gokul Mission (2014), National Dairy Plan-I, Central Herd Registration Scheme. Father of White Revolution in India - Verghese Kurien.
Asked in: SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q9: The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yojana (SJSRY) was launched in the year by the Government of India.
Answer: 1997
Explanation: 1997. SJSRY: The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY) shall seek to provide gainful employment to the urban unemployed. Ministry Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Asked in: SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q10: Which of the following has initiated the Village Defence Guards scheme to instil a sense of self protection and ensure the safety and security of villages and infrastructural installations in and around the villages?
- Ladakh
- Uttar Pradesh
- Jammu and Kashmir
- Rajasthan
Answer: Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation: Jammu and Kashmir. The persons leading the Village Defence Guards will be paid Rs 4,500 per month by the government.
Asked in: SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Miscellaneous
Q1: From which of the following cities does the National Remote Sensing Centre provide acquisition of data and its processing under satellite communication?
- New Delhi
- Chennai
- Hyderabad
- Bengaluru
Answer: Hyderabad
Explanation: Hyderabad. National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) is one of the primary centers of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Department of Space (DOS). Five Regional Centres Jodhpur (Regional Centre-West), New Delhi (Regional Centre-North), New Salt Lake City in Kolkata (Regional Centre-East), Nagpur (Regional Centre-Central), and Bangalore (Regional Centre-South).
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Q2: What is the name of the geostationary satellite launched by ISRO in 1983 that provides high power TV broadcasting and telecommunications national coverage transponders?
- RISAT-1
- Insat-1B
- Bhaskara-l
- GSAT-7
Answer: Insat-1B
Explanation: Insat-1B (Indian Satellite 1B) was launched on 30 August 1983, and continued to operate till 1990. Launch Site: Cape Canaveral, United States.
Asked in: SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q3: Who among the following designed the India Gate?
- Lord Wavell
- Edwin Lutyens
- Lord Dalhousie
- John Nash
Answer: Edwin Lutyens
Explanation: Edwin Lutyens. India Gate was constructed in 1931. The India Gate is a war memorial located astride the Kartavya path (formerly Raj path) on the eastern edge of the 'ceremonial axis' of New Delhi. 0.2033. The Red Fort is located in: SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift) (a) Lucknow (b) Delhi (c) Indore (d) Ahmedabad Sol.2033.(b) Delhi. Red Fort: Built by - Shah Jahan (Fifth Mughal Emperor). The fort was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 2007.
Asked in: SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q4: Which of the following is named as Asia's largest slum?
- Orangi town
- Dharavi
- Niza
- Khayelitsha
Answer: Dharavi
Explanation: Dharavi (Mumbai, Maharashtra). Other Slums In India Bhalswa Slum (Delhi), Nochikuppam Slum (Chennai), Rajendra Nagar Slum (Bangalore), Basanti Slum (Kolkata).
Asked in: SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q5: Which of the following is Tibeto-Burmese language?
Answer: Tripuri
Explanation: Tripuri (Kokborok) One of a the official languages of Tripura. Kokborok Day (Tripuri Language Day) 19th January.
Asked in: SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Q6: Krishnadeva Raya composed a work on_ in Telugu known as the Amuktamalyada.
- statecraft
- dance
- medicine
- music
Answer: statecraft
Explanation: Statecraft. Krishnadevaraya : Ruler of the Tuluva dynasty of Vijayanagar empire (1509-29 AD).
Asked in: SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
Q7: Who among the following Indian music directors, specially known as a leading drummer of India, was awarded the Padma Shri in 2019?
- Sivamani
- Nucleya
- Bappi Lahiri
- Naushad
Answer: Sivamani
Explanation: Sivamani (an Indian percussionist). His stage name - Drums Sivamani.
Asked in: SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift)
Q8: The Lomas Rishi cave which is a man made cave is located in which state of India?
- Maharashtra
- Madhya Pradesh
- Karnataka
- Bihar
Answer: Bihar
Explanation: Bihar. Badami cave temples in Karnataka, India, comprise four caves out of which three are Brahmanical and one is Jain.
Asked in: SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift)
Q9: The Rajgir Zoo is located in which of the following states?
- Tamil Nadu
- Madhya Pradesh
- Gujarat
- Bihar
Answer: Bihar
Explanation: Bihar. Zoos in India: Sri Chamarajendra Zoological Gardens (Karnataka), Nandankanan Zoological Park (Odisha), Rajiv Gandhi Zoological Park (Maharashtra).
Asked in: SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Q10: In which year did Narendra Modi proposed to celebrate a day for yoga as 'International Day of Yoga' while speaking at the United Nations General Assembly?
Answer: 2014
Explanation: 2014. The United Nations proclaimed 21st June as International day of yoga (IDY). The first Yoga Day celebrations (2015). Theme: 'Yoga for Harmony and Peace. The 9th IDY, 2023 Theme: "Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam,".
Asked in: SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Politics
Q1: Which of the following is the Fundamental Law of any country which sets out the framework and the principal functions of various organs of the government?
- Customs
- Constitution
- International Law
- Ordinance
Answer: Constitution
Explanation: Constitution is a legal, political, and social instrument. Legally, it enshrines human rights and creates a predictable legal landscape. Politically, it establishes, distributes and limits governmental power. Socially, it reflects a shared identity or civic vision of the state. Indian constitution (Adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26th January 1950) is the world's longest written constitution. 26th November is celebrated every year as Samvidhan Divas (Law Day or Constitution Day) in India.
Asked in: SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q2: Who among the following personalities was appointed as the legal advisor of the Constituent Assembly that drafted the document of the Constitution?
- HVR lyengar
- SN Mukherjee
- BR Ambedkar
- BN Rau
Answer: BN Rau
Explanation: BN Rau. On 9 December 1946, the Constituent Assembly of India met for the first time. Temporary President Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha. President of the Assembly Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Vice-President of the Assembly HC Mukherjee. The Constituent Assembly had a total of 389 members.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q3: Which of the following words was NOT a part of the original Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
- Democratic
- Secular
- Republic
- Sovereign
Answer: Secular
Explanation: Secular- All religions are treated equally by the government. It was added in the Preamble by 42nd Amendment, 1976. Democratic: the government is elected by the people. Republic: the head of state is an elected president. Sovereign: independent and not subject to the control of any other country.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q4: Which of the following noble ideals is mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
- Liberty of expression, civil, political, worship and belief
- Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
- Liberty of belief, fiscal, personal, faith and worship
- Liberty of opportunity, economic, social, faith and expression
Answer: Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
Explanation: Preamble basically gives ideas - Source of the Constitution, Nature of Indian State, Statement of its objectives, Date of its adoption. Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic. The Objective Resolution of the Indian Constitution contained the fundamental propositions of the constitution and laid down the political ideas, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q5: Which of the following is NOT a political philosophy of the Indian Constitution?
- Sensitive for the historically disadvantaged groups
- Open to community values
- Sensitive to the needs of religious and linguistic minorities
- Non-committal to building a common national identity
Answer: Non-committal to building a common national identity
Explanation: The philosophy of the Indian Constitution is based on the principles of secularism, democracy, social justice, fundamental rights, and directive principles of state policy. The philosophical postulates of the Constitution of India are based on Objective Resolution of Pandit Nehru which was moved in the first session of the constituent assembly on 13 Dec 1946.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q6: Which of the following words is NOT mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
- Secular
- Republic
- Federalism
- Socialist
Answer: Federalism
Explanation: Federalism A system of government in which powers have been divided between the centre and its constituent parts such as states or provinces. Republic The head of the state is elected by the people of the country. Socialist A democratic socialism where both public and private sectors function together towards socialist goals.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q7: The original Constitution of India was hand written in English by:
- HVR lyenger
- Prem Behari Narayan Raizada
- Vasant Krishan Vaidya
- SN Mukherjee
Answer: Prem Behari Narayan Raizada
Explanation: Prem Behari Narayan Raizada The calligrapher of the Indian Constitution. The original constitution was handwritten by him in a flowing italic style.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q8: Who among the following personalities was the chief draftsman of the constituent assembly that drafted the document of the Constitution?
- KM Munshi
- Vasant Krishan Vaidya
- SN Mukherjee
- HVR lyenger
Answer: SN Mukherjee
Explanation: SN Mukherjee. The drafting committee was formed under the chairmanship of Dr B R Ambedkar by the Constituent Assembly on 29th August 1947. The other six members of the committee were K.M. Munshi, Muhammed Sadullah, Alladi Krishnaswamy lyer, N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar, Devi Prasad Khaitan and BL Mitter.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q9: Which of the following is an incorrect statement in regard to the meaning of 'Union of States' in the Indian context?
- Country was divided into different states for administrative convenience.
- The Indian federation was the result of an agreement by sovereign units to join it.
- Enumerates the power of the centre and states through various lists.
- Federation not being the result of agreement, no state has a right to secede from it.
Answer: The Indian federation was the result of an agreement by sovereign units to join it.
Explanation: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Article 1(1) of the Constitution of India says that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. In India, the component units have no freedom to secede from the federation. Dr. B R Ambedkar called India as an indestructible Union of destructible states (the Central Government can change the name, boundaries of the states without their permission).
Asked in: SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q10: Who among the following wrote in calligraphic style the Hindi version of the original Indian Constitution?
- SN Mukherjee
- Prem Behari Narain Raizada
- Vasant Krishan Vaidya
- Nand Lal Bose
Answer: Vasant Krishan Vaidya
Explanation: Vasant Krishan Vaidya. The original version of the constitution was beautified and decorated by artists from Shantiniketan including Nand Lal Bose and Beohar Rammanohar Sinha.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Geography
Q1: Which is the most widely accepted model to explain the formation and evaluation of the solar system?
- Cloud hypothesis
- Gas hypothesis
- Nebular hypothesis
- Solar hypothesis
Answer: Nebular hypothesis
Explanation: Nebular hypothesis The planets were formed out of a cloud of material associated with a youthful sun, which was slowly rotating. The theory was developed by Immanuel Kant. But Mathematician Laplace revised it in 1796. Other Hypothesis: Big Bang Theory - Propounded by George Lamaitre related to the origin of the universe.
Asked in: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
Q2: Terrestrial planets are composed of
- metals and air
- rocks and metals
- metals and gas
- rocks and gas
Answer: rocks and metals
Explanation: Rocks and metals. Terrestrial Planets Mercury, Venus (Earth's sister planet), Earth and Mars. They are categorised into the following: Silicate Planets, Iron Planets, Coreless Planets, Carbon (diamond) Planets. Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus and Neptune are called Jovian Planets because of their large size (Jovian is named after Jupiter) and their hydrogen content.
Asked in: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Q3: Which trend is found about distance between the galaxies?
- Unpredictable
- Decreasing
- Constant
- Increasing the
Answer: Increasing the
Explanation: Increasing. In 1929, Edwin Hubble announced that almost all galaxies appeared to be moving away from us. He found that the universe was expanding with all of the galaxies moving away from each other. This phenomenon was observed as a redshift of a galaxy's spectrum.
Asked in: SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
Q4: On which planet has a rotating oval of clouds, twice as wide as Earth, called the 'Great Red Spot' been observed for more than 300 years?
- Neptune
- Jupiter
- Mercury
- Venus
Answer: Jupiter
Explanation: Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system. It is made mostly of hydrogen and helium. Number of Moons - 95. Neptune - It is the only planet in our solar system not visible to the naked eye. It has 14 Moons.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q5: Which scientist thought of the concept of the steady state of the universe?
- Harold Jeffrey
- Edwin Hubble
- Fred Hoyle
- Pierre - Laplace
Answer: Fred Hoyle
Explanation: Fred Hoyle. Steady-State Theory: It is a theoretical model in which the Universe is constantly expanding but with a fixed average density. The theory was put forward by three scientists (1948): Sir Hermann Bondi, Thomas Gold, and Sir Fred Hoyle.
Asked in: SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
Q6: From the given alternatives, identify the dwarf planet.
Answer: Pluto
Explanation: Pluto. The five dwarf planets are Ceres, Pluto, Makemake, Haumea, and Eris. A dwarf planet is a celestial body that is in orbit around the Sun and has enough mass to be roughly round in shape.
Asked in: Higher Secondary 30/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
Q7: Which among the following planets is also known as "morning star"?
Answer: Venus
Explanation: Venus The second planet closest to the sun. It is also called Earth's twin sister because it is similar in size and density as of the Earth. It is also known as Morning and Evening Star. It rotates from east to west i.e. in clockwise direction. It does not have its own natural satellite.
Asked in: SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Evening)
Q8: The Kuiper Belt is a ring of icy rocks & dust bodies just outside the orbit of.
- Saturn
- Venus
- Jupiter
- Neptune
Answer: Neptune
Explanation: Neptune Farthest-known planet from the Sun. Rotation on its axis 16 hours. Revolution 165 Earth years. Size - 17 times the mass of Earth. Moons - 14. Natural satellite Triton (largest moon). Only a planet which is invisible to the naked eye.
Asked in: SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Q9: The moon moves around the earth in about days.
Answer: 27
Explanation: 27. Moon is the only natural satellite of planet Earth. It takes 27 days, 7 hours and 43 minutes to complete one revolution around the Earth. Earth's Moon is the fifth largest moon in the solar system (Largest Ganymede of Jupiter). Distance 384,400 kilometers from Earth.
Asked in: SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
Q10: Minal wrote an essay on the largest moon of Saturn. Which among the following moons is it?
Answer: Titan
Explanation: Titan The second-largest moon in our solar system. Ganymede (Jupiter's moon) is the largest moon in the solar system. Atlas It is a satellite of Saturn which was discovered by Richard Terrile. Carme - It is one of the moons of Jupiter which was discovered by Seth Barnes Nicholson. Europa - It is the moon of Jupiter.
Asked in: SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning)
Economics
Q1: Which of the following is NOT a part of the infrastructure sector?
- Agriculture
- Dams
- Highways
- Power
Answer: Agriculture
Explanation: Agriculture. Infrastructure is defined as the basic physical systems of a business, region, or nation and often involves the production of public goods or production processes. Examples- transportation systems, communication networks, sewage, water, and school systems etc.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Q2: The shares of the public sector and the private sector in the production of steel during 1990-91 were respectively.
- 40% and 60%
- 49% and 51%
- 46% and 54%
- 55% and 45%
Answer: 46% and 54%
Explanation: 46% and 54%. During the 1950-60 and 1960-70, the average annual growth rate of steel production exceeded 8%. During 1970-80, the growth rate in steel production came down to 5.7% per annum and increased to 6.65% per annum during 1990-2000. During 2000-01, the shares of the public sector and the private sector in the production of steel was 32% and 68% respectively.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q3: Which of the following is NOT true about the circular flow of income in a two-sector economy?
- Total production is equal to total consumption.
- Factor payment is equal to factor income.
- Real Flow is more than money flow.
- Consumption expenditure is equal to factor income.
Answer: Real Flow is more than money flow.
Explanation: Circular flow of income - A model of the economy that shows how money flows through the different sectors of the economy. A simple economy assumes that there exist only two sectors, i.e., Households and Firms. a
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
Q4: During the year 1991-92, the industrial production recorded __growth of
- negative; 1.1 Percent
- positive; 1.1 Percent
- negative; 0.9 Percent
- positive; 0.6 Percent
Answer: positive; 0.6 Percent
Explanation: positive; 0.6 Percent. India's Industrial reforms of 1991: Wide-scale reduction in the scope of industrial licensing, simplification of procedural rules and regulations, reduction of areas reserved exclusively for the public sector, disinvestment of equity of selected public sector undertakings, enhancing the limits of foreign equity participation in domestic industrial undertakings, liberalisation of trade and exchange rate policies, rationalisation and reduction of customs and excise duties and personal and corporate income-tax etc.
Asked in: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Q5: Which of the following is NOT an example of manufacturing activity?
- Paper made from wood
- Mutual fund products made by combining debt and equity funds
- Yarn made from cotton
- Sugar made from sugarcane
Answer: Mutual fund products made by combining debt and equity funds
Explanation: Mutual fund products made by combining debt and equity funds come under the Tertiary sector of Economy. Tertiary sectors itself do not produce goods but they are an aid or a support to the primary and secondary sectors.
Asked in: SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q6: Which of these is related to public goods?
- The principle of excludability is applicable to its consumption.
- There is a clear link between the producer and consumer which occurs through the payment process.
- Its consumption is rivalrous in nature.
- There is a possibility of free ridership in its consumption.
Answer: There is a possibility of free ridership in its consumption.
Explanation: Public goods - A commodity or service that is provided without profit to all members of a society, either by the government or by a private individual or an organization. National defense, effective policing, and public education are all examples of public goods. Private good - A product that must be purchased to be consumed, and consumption by one individual prevents another individual from consuming it. Examples Houses, cars, clothing, food, movie tickets etc.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q7: Which of these is not the reason why 'final' goods are called so?
- They are meant for final use.
- They are the last to be consumed.
- They will not pass through any more stages of production.
- They are not processed or transformed further.
Answer: They are the last to be consumed.
Explanation: Final Goods An item that is meant for final use and will not pass through any more stages of production or transformations. Types of final goods: consumption goods and capital goods. Examples: television, ready-to-eat foods, medicines. Intermediate goods Raw materials that a firm buys from another firm which are completely used up in the process of production. Examples: wheat, soil, crude oil, steel etc.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q8: What was the percentage of women working in the primary sector of India as of 2011-2012?
Answer: 62.8%
Explanation: 62.8%. Distribution of workforce in different sectors, as per 2011-12 data: Primary sector 48.9 percent (Men - 43.6 percent), Secondary Sector: 24.3 percent (Men 25.9 percent, women 20 percent), Tertiary/service Sector 26.8 percent (Men -30.5 percent).
Asked in: SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q9: Final goods are divided into:
- raw materials and semi-finished goods
- single goods and composite goods
- consumption goods and capital goods
- War goods and civilian goods
Answer: consumption goods and capital goods
Explanation: Consumption goods Directly used for the satisfaction of human wants and not used later to produce another consumer good. Example Food, Beverages, Clothing, Vehicles. Capital goods - Assets used by businesses in the course of producing products and services for consumers. Example - Buildings, Machinery, Vehicles.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q10: Which of these is NOT a characteristic of durable goods?
- They are capable of repetitive use.
- They are not extinguished by immediate consumption.
- They are meant for repetitive purchases.
- They have a relatively long life.
Answer: They are meant for repetitive purchases.
Explanation: Durable goods (Consumer durables) : Those products that are used repeatedly over a period of time. The life of these products is high and the price paid to possess these products are also high. Example Refrigerators, air conditioners, tools, computers, televisions, jewellery, home and office furnishings. Non - Durable goods : These goods have a shelf life of less than three years and many can be recycled. Example Milk, vegetables, meat, fruit, paperboard, magazines.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift)
Physics
Q2: A concave spherical mirror has a radius of curvature of 30 cm. An object was placed 15 cm away from the pole in front of the mirror on the principal axis Choose the correct option for the position, size and nature of the image formed, respectively.
- Behind the mirror, enlarged, virtual and erect
- At infinity, highly enlarged, real and inverted
- Between Focus and Centre, diminished, real and inverted
- At the focus, highly diminished point-sized, realand inverted
Answer: At infinity, highly enlarged, real and inverted
Explanation: At Infinity, highly enlarged, real and inverted. We know that, focus of a mirror, f = R/2, where R is the radius of curvature of the mirror. Here in this case, f = 30/2 = -15 cm. Also, distance of the object from the mirror, u =-15 cm. It means that the object is placed at the focus of the mirror. Now it is clear that when the object is placed at focus of the mirror, the respective image will be formed at infinity. The size of the image would be highly enlarged. The nature of the image would be real and inverted.
Asked in: SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Q3: In optics, which term refers to the opening of the diaphragm of a lens that spatially limits the propagation of light?
- Collimator
- Aperture
- Apostilb
- Meniscus
Answer: Aperture
Explanation: Aperture. Collimator - A device which narrows a beam of particles or waves. Apostilb An obsolete unit of luminance. Meniscus - A C-shaped piece of tough, rubbery cartilage that acts as a shock absorber between the shinbone and the thigh bone.
Asked in: SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q4: White light is an example of:
- laser light
- plane polarized light
- monochromatic light
- polychromatic light
Answer: polychromatic light
Explanation: Polychromatic light The light consists of a broad range of wavelengths. Examples Mercury Light, Sunlight, laser-pumped plasma light. Monochromatic light - The light consists of only one specific wavelength. Examples - laser beam, Sodium lamps, Spark lamps. Plane polarized light It consists of waves in which the direction of vibration is the same for all waves. Examples - laser lights and devices. Laser light - Laser (Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation) is an artificial source of light radiation that emits a coherent beam of photons, as the source is stable in frequency, wavelength, and power.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q5: Which telescope was invented by Isaac Newton in the 17th century by using a concave mirror to collect light instead of a simple lens which produces false colors due to the dispersion of light?
- Reflecting telescope
- Infrared telescope
- Monocular telescope
- Graphic telescopе
Answer: Reflecting telescope
Explanation: Reflecting telescope Uses mirrors which cause light to reflect at different angles within the optical tube and extends the overall light path. Two major types of telescopes: Reflecting Telescopes and Refracting Telescopes (used lenses to magnify objects). Infrared telescope: Uses infrared light to detect celestial bodies.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q6: The minimum distance of distinct vision for a young adult person with no defect in eyes is:
Answer: 25 cm
Explanation: 25 cm. For a normal eye, the far point is at infinity and the near point of distinct vision is about 25 cm in front of the eye. Hypermetropia (far-sightedness) : When the point goes farther from 25 cm. Lens used : Convex. Myopia (Nearsightedness): Near objects appear clear, but objects farther away look blurry. Lens used: Concave.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q7: Which colour of light from VIBGYOR has minimum energy?
Answer: Red
Explanation: Red. It has the longest wavelength and least energy of the visible colors of light. Wavelength The distance between two successive crests or troughs. Violet has the shortest wavelength. Frequency It refers to the number of waves passing through a point per second. Violet has the highest frequency. The white light consists of 7 colors VIBGYOR (Violet - Indigo - Blue Green - Yellow - Orange - Red).
Asked in: SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q8: Why can you not see objects in a dim lit room when you come from a brightly lit room?
- The iris dilates the eye lens to allow less light to enter the eye.
- The iris contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye.
- The vitreous humour dilates the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye.
- The cornea contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye.
Answer: The iris contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye.
Explanation: Iris It gives a distinct color to the eyes. The eyeball is spherical in shape having a diameter of 23 mm. Vitreous humor present in between lens and retina. Retina contains three layers of neural cells (ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptor cells). Cornea - The front most and transparent covering of the eye. Light enters the human eye through the cornea.
Asked in: SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift)
Q9: What will be the focal length of a convex lens with the power of a +2.5 Diopter?
Answer: 40 cm
Explanation: 40 cm. Using the formula: focal length (f) of convex Lens = 1/Power (P) Given, the power (P) = +2.5 diopters then focal length: f =1/2.5= 0.4 meters 40 centimeters. Focal length of convex lens is always positive and concave lens is always negative.
Asked in: Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift -2)
Q10: Raman wants to use a rear-view mirror in his vehicle. Which type of mirror should he pick for it?
- Convex Mirrors
- Plane Mirrors
- Cylindrical Mirrors
- Concave Mirrors
Answer: Convex Mirrors
Explanation: Convex Mirrors. This is because they give an erect, virtual, full size diminished image of distant objects with a wider field of view. Uses Sunglasses, street lights.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q11: An image formed by the convex mirror is always
- virtual and inverted
- real and erect
- virtual and erect
- real and inverted
Answer: virtual and erect
Explanation: Virtual and erect. Convex mirror (Diverging Mirror) - It has a reflecting surface that bulges outwards, and away from the centre of curvature. Uses Rear view mirrors, Street light reflector, etc.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Chemistry
Q1: Identify whether the given statements about ionisation energy are correct or incorrect. Statement A: The ionisation energy of an atom is the amount of energy that is required to remove an electron from a mole of atoms in the gas phase. Statement B: The ionisation energy increases from top to bottom in groups and decreases from left to right across aperiod.
- Only Statement B is correct
- Only Statement A is correct
- Both Statements A and B are correct
- Both Statements A and B are incorrect
Answer: Only Statement A is correct
Explanation: Only Statement A is correct. The ionization energy decreases from top to bottom in groups, and increases from left to right across a period. Thus, helium has the largest ionization energy, while Caesium has the lowest.
Asked in: SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q2: In which year did Carl Anderson discover a positively charged particle called "positron' whose mass appears to be equal to the mass of an electron?
Answer: 1932
Explanation: 1932. Electron - J.J. Thomson (1897). Proton - E. Rutherford. Neutron James Chadwick (1932).
Asked in: SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q3: In which year did Niels Bohr propose a theory for the hydrogen atom based on the quantum theory that some physical quantities take only discrete values?
Answer: 1913
Explanation: 1913. Niels Bohr received the Nobel Prize in 1922 "for his services in the investigation of the structure of atoms and of the radiation emanating from them".
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q4: Which are the four quantum numbers for an electron present in 4f orbital?
- n = 4, 1 = 3, m = +1, s = + 1.s=+ 2
- n = 3, 1 = 2, m=-2,s = +2 1
- n = 4, l = 4, m=-4, s= 1
- n = 4, 1 = 3, m=+4, s=
Answer: n = 4, 1 = 3, m = +1, s = + 1.s=+ 2
Explanation: n = 4, I = 3, m = + 1,s =+ There are four quantum numbers: Principal (n) It refers to the electron shell with the most electrons, giving the electron's likely distance from the nucleus. Azimuthal (1) It is defined as the determination of the shape of an orbital. Magnetic (m) The subshell's overall number of orbitals and their orientation. Spin (s) The values of n, I, and m have no bearing on the electron. The 4s subshell contains 1 orbital and can hold up to 2 electrons. The 4p subshell contains 3 orbitals and can hold up to 6 electrons. The 4d subshell contains 5 orbitals and can hold up to 10 electrons.The 4f subshell has 7 orbitals and can hold up to 14 electrons.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q5: The correct electronic configuration of Cu is:
- [Ar]3d94s²
- [Kr]3d4s²
- [Kr]3d1°4s
- [Ar]3d104s
Answer: [Ar]3d104s
Explanation: [Ar]3d104s1. Copper (Cu) Atomic number (29), Electronic configuration 1s2 2s² 2p° 3s² 3p 4s1 3d10 or [Ar]3d104s1.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q6: What does it mean when an object has a positive charge?
- It has more electrons than protons
- It has more protons than electrons
- It has more neutrons than electrons
- It has more neutrons than protons
Answer: It has more protons than electrons
Explanation: An electron is negatively charged particle and protons are positively charged particles.
Asked in: SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning)
Q7: What is the relative charge of a proton and neutron?
- -1 and +1 respectively
- +1 and -1 respectively
- +1 and 0 respectively
- -1 and 0 respectively
Answer: +1 and 0 respectively
Explanation: +1 and 0 respectively.
Asked in: SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Q8: Which of the following pairs of 'number - composition' is correct? I. Atomic number - number of protons II. Mass number - Sum of number of neutrons and protons
- Only
- Both I and II
- Neither I nor II
- Only II
Answer: Both I and II
Explanation: Both I and II. As atomic number increases, subsequently mass number also increases.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Q9: What is the atomic mass of sodium?
Answer: 23
Explanation: 23. Sodium (Na) is an alkali metal. Atomic number - 11, Group - 1 and Period - 3, Sodium is a solid at room temperature. Uses - Soaps, the purification of molten metals and sodium vapour lamps.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Q10: Which of the following is the correct representation of number of atoms?
- given mass / Molar mass) * Avogadro number
- avogardro number / given mass ) * Molar mass
- molar mass / given mass ) * avogadro number
- given mass / avogardro number ) * molar mass
Answer: given mass / Molar mass) * Avogadro number
Explanation: (iven mass /Molar mass) ✗ Avogadro number. Avogadro number: 6.022 x 1023. Molar mass of a substance is the mass (in grams) of one mole of the compound.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Biology
Q1: What is the scientific name of the banyan tree, a large evergreen tree of Asia characterised by its trunk-like aerial roots?
- Ficus benghalensis
- Gossypium herbaceum
- Santalum album
- Ananas comosus
Answer: Ficus benghalensis
Explanation: Ficus benghalensis: Family Moraceae, Order Rosales, Kingdom- Plantae. Gossypium herbaceum: Levant cotton, Family Malvaceae, Order- Malvales. Santalum album: Indian Sandalwood, Family: Santalaceae, Order - Santalales. Ananas comosus: Pineapple, Family - Bromeliaceae, Order - Poales.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q2: Image-based question
- (a) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
- (b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
- (c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
- (d) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
Answer: (b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
Explanation: b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Divisions of Algae and their Main Characteristics: Chlorophyceae (Green algae): Major pigments Starch, Chlorophyll, Stored Food Example Spirogyra. Phaeophyceae (Brown algae): Pigmentfucoxanthin, Stored food Laminarin, Example Mannitol, Sargassum, Laminaria. Rhodophyceae (Red algae) : Pigment Phycoerythrin, Stored Food Floridean starch, Example Gracilaria and Gelidium.
Asked in: SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
Q3: What is the common term Ancylostoma?
- Tapeworm
- Filaria worm
- Roundworm
- Hookworm
Answer: Hookworm
Explanation: Hookworm. Ancylostoma is a genus of parasitic nematodes (roundworms) that primarily infect mammals. These worms are intestinal parasites and are transmitted to humans through contact with contaminated soil or sand where the larvae are present. Tapeworm: genus Taenia, Examples Taenia solium (pork tapeworm) and Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm). Filaria worms belong to the family Filarioidea.
Asked in: SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Q4: Solanum lycopersicum L. is the scientific name of which of the following highly consumed vegetables?
Answer: Tomato
Explanation: Tomato. Potato Solanum tuberosum, Onion Allium cepa, and Allium sativum.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Q5: Which of the following is another name for starch found mainly in the pulp of seeds, fruits, tubers, roots and stems of plants, especially in corn, potatoes, wheat and rice?
- Amylum
- Olestra
- Xanthan
- Saponin
Answer: Amylum
Explanation: Amylum A polymeric carbohydrate consisting of numerous glucose units joined by glycosidic bonds. Olestra (Olean) Fat substitute that doesn't add any calories to products. Saponins They are naturally occurring compounds that are widely distributed in all cells of legume plants Xanthan Tomato. Potato - Solanum tuberosum, Onion Allium cepa, and Garlic - Allium sativum.
Asked in: SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Q6: What is the common name Parthenium hysterophorus?
- Lemon grass
- Lawn grass
- Horse grass
- Carrot grass
Answer: Carrot grass
Explanation: Carrot Grass. Lemon grass Cymbopogon, Lawn Grass - Poaceae, Horsetails - Equisetum.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning)
Q7: Oleo gum resin (Asafoetida) can obtained from:
- dried latex from the stem of ferula
- dried latex from the roots of mango tree of be
- dried latex from the banana leaves
- dried latex from the tap root of ferula
Answer: dried latex from the tap root of ferula
Explanation: Oleo-gum-resin (Asafoetida) can be obtained from the exudates of the roots of the Iranian endemic medicinal plant, Ferula asafoetida. It has cytotoxic, antiulcer, anti-neoplasm, anti-cancer, and anti-oxidative effects.
Asked in: SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning)
Q8: The scientific name for the domestic _ is Canis lupus familiaris.
Answer: dog
Explanation: Dog. Bubalus bubalis Buffalo, Felis catus - Cat Bos taurus - Cow
Asked in: SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
Q9: What mango? is the botanical name of
- Mangifera indica
- Cocos nucifera
- Monoon longifolium
- Casuarina
Answer: Mangifera indica
Explanation: Mangifera indica. Botanical Names: Cocos nucifera (Coconut), Monoon longifolium (False Ashoka), Saraca asoca (Ashoka tree), Casuarina (Australian pine). Nutrition in Animals
Asked in: SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening)
Q10: Select the INCORRECT statement with regards to vitamins.
- Plants can synthesise almost all vitamins.
- Vitamins are organic compounds.
- Some bacteria in the gut do not produce vitamins.
- Most of the vitamins cannot get synthesised in sufficient amounts in our body.
Answer: Some bacteria in the gut do not produce vitamins.
Explanation: Gut bacteria helps in supplying essential nutrients, synthesising vitamin K, aiding in the digestion of cellulose. Vitamins A, D, E and K are fat-soluble and vitamins C and B (complex group vitamins) are water- soluble.
Asked in: SSC CHSL Tier Il 02/11/2023